$d_1$ and $d_2$

d1d_1 and d2d_2 are the two inputs that feed into N()N(\cdot) inside the BSM call formula. They are defined by d1=[ln(S0/K)+(r+σ2/2)T]/(σT)d_1 = [\ln(S_0/K) + (r + \sigma^2/2)T] / (\sigma\sqrt{T}) and d2=d1σTd_2 = d_1 - \sigma\sqrt{T}. N(d1)N(d_1) is the call's delta (shares to hold per option), and N(d2)N(d_2) is the risk-neutral probability the call finishes in the money (Hull, 2022, §15.6).

Why it matters

Think of d2d_2 as a standardised moneyness. It measures how far the log forward ln(S0erT/K)\ln(S_0 e^{rT}/K) sits above zero, divided by the total return volatility σT\sigma\sqrt{T}. When d2d_2 is large and positive, the option is deep in the money and almost certain to be exercised. d1d_1 is the same quantity shifted up by σT\sigma\sqrt{T}, which adjusts for the fact that the conditional expected payoff of the stock at exercise is higher than its forward price.

Formulas

$d_1$
d1=ln(S0/K)+(r+σ2/2)TσTd_1 = \frac{\ln(S_0/K) + (r + \sigma^2/2)T}{\sigma\sqrt{T}}
For a stock paying continuous dividend yield qq, replace rr with rqr - q.
$d_2$
d2=d1σTd_2 = d_1 - \sigma\sqrt{T}
The σ2/2\sigma^2/2 term in d1d_1 is the Itô correction that pulls the median of the lognormal below its mean.

Worked examples

Scenario

At-the-money one-year call, S0=K=S_0 = K = A$50, r=5%r = 5\%, σ=30%\sigma = 30\%, T=1T = 1.

Solution

ln(S0/K)=0\ln(S_0/K) = 0, so d1=[0+(0.05+0.045)(1)]/(0.301)=0.095/0.30=0.3167d_1 = [0 + (0.05 + 0.045)(1)] / (0.30 \sqrt{1}) = 0.095 / 0.30 = 0.3167. Then d2=0.31670.30=0.0167d_2 = 0.3167 - 0.30 = 0.0167. From a z-table N(d1)0.6242N(d_1) \approx 0.6242 and N(d2)0.5067N(d_2) \approx 0.5067. Delta is 0.6242 shares per option.

Scenario

Deep out-of-the-money call, S0=S_0 = A$40, K=K = A$60, other inputs as above.

Solution

ln(40/60)=0.4055\ln(40/60) = -0.4055. d1=(0.4055+0.095)/0.30=1.035d_1 = (-0.4055 + 0.095) / 0.30 = -1.035. d2=1.335d_2 = -1.335. N(d1)0.150N(d_1) \approx 0.150 and N(d2)0.091N(d_2) \approx 0.091. The risk-neutral probability of exercise is only about 9%, and the call's delta is roughly 0.15.

Common mistakes

  • d1d_1 is the same as N(d1)N(d_1). d1d_1 is the input to the standard normal CDF. N(d1)N(d_1) is the output between 0 and 1. Mixing the two is the single most common BSM arithmetic error.
  • N(d2)N(d_2) is the real-world probability of exercise. It is the risk-neutral probability. Real-world probability uses the actual stock drift μ\mu in the numerator instead of rr and is generally higher.

Revision bullets

  • d1=[ln(S0/K)+(r+σ2/2)T]/(σT)d_1 = [\ln(S_0/K) + (r + \sigma^2/2)T] / (\sigma\sqrt{T})
  • d2=d1σTd_2 = d_1 - \sigma\sqrt{T}
  • N(d1)N(d_1) is the call delta
  • N(d2)N(d_2) is risk-neutral probability of exercise
  • Replace rr with rqr - q for dividend yield qq

Quick check

The relationship between d1d_1 and d2d_2 is

N(d1)N(d_1) in the BSM call formula is most directly interpreted as

Connected topics

In learning paths

Sources

  1. Hull (2022), §15.6
    Hull, John C. Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives. 11th ed. Pearson, 2022. ISBN 978-0-13-693997-9.
    Derives $d_1$ and $d_2$ from the lognormal expectation and gives the interpretation as delta and risk-neutral probability.
  2. Black, Fischer, and Myron Scholes. "The Pricing of Options and Corporate Liabilities." Journal of Political Economy 81, no. 3 (1973): 637-654.
    Original paper where $d_1$ and $d_2$ first appear inside the closed-form European call price.
  3. Merton, Robert C. "Theory of Rational Option Pricing." Bell Journal of Economics and Management Science 4, no. 1 (Spring 1973): 141-183.
    Generalises $d_1$ and $d_2$ to include a continuous dividend yield, replacing $r$ with $r - q$.
How to cite this page
Dr. Phil's Quant Lab. (2026). $d_1$ and $d_2$. Derivatives Atlas. https://phucnguyenvan.com/concept/d1-d2